Mehdi asked 10 months ago
asalam alayum, I have some questions regarding Mut\\\’ah. Please, could you answer according to sayyid al Khoei
- is the requirement for the permission of the virgin girl\’s father a definite fatwa or is it based on obligatory precaution?
- what about a Mutah without consummation, is that a definite fatwa or based on obligatory precaution?
- if the girl follows a jurist or sect that states the virgin girl does not require her father\’s permission for marriage, then can I do mutah with her without her father\’s permission?
- If a girl has lost her virginity to zina then does she count as a non-virgin?
- Finally, can i refer to a different jurist on any of the above questions?
1 Answers
Fiqh Department Staff answered 10 months ago
بِسْمِ ٱللَّٰهِ ٱلرَّحْمَٰنِ ٱلرَّحِيمِ
السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته
As Salaamu Alaikum Wa Rahmatullahi Wa Barakatuh,
We hope this answer finds you in high Islamic spirit.
- It is obligatory precaution.
- Regardless of having sexual intercourse, it is based on obligatory precaution to have permission from her and her father or grandfather.
- Yes, but if you follow a jurist who requires permission, then it is unclear.
- Yes, she will be counted as a non-virgin.
- Yes, you can refer to a different jurist on the verdict that has obligatory precaution.
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