Mehdi asked 2 months ago
asalam alayum, I have some questions regarding Mut\\\’ah. Please, could you answer according to sayyid al Khoei
- is the requirement for the permission of the virgin girl\’s father a definite fatwa or is it based on obligatory precaution?
- what about a Mutah without consummation, is that a definite fatwa or based on obligatory precaution?
- if the girl follows a jurist or sect that states the virgin girl does not require her father\’s permission for marriage, then can I do mutah with her without her father\’s permission?
- If a girl has lost her virginity to zina then does she count as a non-virgin?
- Finally, can i refer to a different jurist on any of the above questions?
1 Answers
Fiqh Department Staff answered 2 months ago
بِسْمِ ٱللَّٰهِ ٱلرَّحْمَٰنِ ٱلرَّحِيمِ
السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته
As Salaamu Alaikum Wa Rahmatullahi Wa Barakatuh,
We hope this answer finds you in high Islamic spirit.
- It is obligatory precaution.
- Regardless of having sexual intercourse, it is based on obligatory precaution to have permission from her and her father or grandfather.
- Yes, but if you follow a jurist who requires permission, then it is unclear.
- Yes, she will be counted as a non-virgin.
- Yes, you can refer to a different jurist on the verdict that has obligatory precaution.
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